Download ESIC Nursing Officer Exam 2011 Question Paper PDF
Download ESIC Nursing Officer Exam 2011 Question Paper PDF . ESIC Conduct Nursing Officer Grade- II Recruitment Exam on 2011 Exam . The Exam was Held on 2011 . Now You Can Download this Question Paper PDF with Answer Keys from Our Website . Download Link are given below
Download ESIC Nursing Officer Exam 2011 Question Paper PDF . ESIC Conduct Nursing Officer Grade- II Recruitment Exam on 2011 Exam . The Exam was Held on 2011 . Now You Can Download this Question Paper PDF with Answer Keys from Our Website . Download Link are given below
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➤Download ESIC Nursing Officer Exam 2011 Question Paper PDF-
1. Uterus will be
enlarged and fundus is at the level of umbilicus at——-weeks of gestation.
a. 24 hours
b. 16 weeks
c. 32 weeks
d. 20 weeks
2. Dots is related with -
a. HIV infection
b. Leprosy
c. Weil’s disease
d. Tuberculosis
3. Hepatitis A is
transmitted by-
a. Contaminated food and
water
b. Blood and blood
products
c. Fomites
d. Sexual contact
4. ———–are antipsychotics except -
a. Promethazine
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Prochlorperazine
d. Trifluoperazine
5. 1 gm of protein gives—-kcals.
a. 10
b. 7
c. 5
d. 4
6. ———–is the method of
transfer of heat by circulating air or liquid: -
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Evaporation
7. This is not included in the triple test-
a. Maternal serum alpha
fetoprotein
b. Unconjugated oestriol
c. HCG
d. Progesterone
8. Massaging the uterus to make it hard is important in -
a. Traumatic PPH
b. Atonic PPH
c. Subinvolution
d. Inversion of uterus
9. All of the following are adventitious breath sounds except:
a. Crackles
b. Rhonchi
c. Wheeze
d. Fremitus
10. The apex beat can be
best heard at -
a. 5th intercostal space
b. 3rd intercostal space
c. 7th intercostal space
d. Centre of the sternum
11. The proponent of psychoanalysis theory is -
a. Ivan Pavlov
b. BF Skinner
c. Sigmund Freud
d. Eric Bernec
12. It is an increase in
depth of respiration-
a. Apnea
b. Dyspnea
c. Orthopnea
d. Hyperpnoea
13. Mitral valve is
situated between -
a. Right atrium and right
ventricle
b. Left atrium and left
ventricle
c. Aorta and left
ventricle
d. Pulmonary artery and
right ventricle
14. The normal value of
Hb in females is -
a. 8 to 10 gm%
b. 12 – 14 gm%
c. 16 to 18 gm%
d. 10-12 gm%
15. All of the following
all components of Glasgow coma scale except -
a. Motor response
b. Marital status
c. Eye opening
d. Verbal response
16. Vincristine is an
example of -
a. Antibiotics
b. Nitrogen mustard
c. Plant alkaloid
d. Hormone
17. The suffix used for
making an opening
a. Otomy
b. Ostomy
c. Ectomy
d. Raphy
18. Mydriatics are drugs
that -
a. Dilate pupil
b. Constrict pupil
c. Reduce intraocular
pressure
d. Reduce BP
19. The normal baseline
FHR is between. -
a. 100 – 140/ml
b. 80 – 100 /ml
c. 120 – 160/ml
d. 160-180/ml
21. In increased ICP
manifestations of Cushing’s triad include all of the following except
a. Increased systolic BP
b. Bradycardia
c. Irregular respiratory
pattern
d. Tachycardia
22. After IVP for a
patient, the most important nursing responsibility is
a. Assess for flank pain
b. Advice to take
increased oral fluids
c. Observe urine for
contrast material
d. Keep nil orally for 6
hours.
23. Enlargement of the
right ventricle secondary to disease of the lung, thorax or
pulmonary circulation is
a. Cachexia
b. Cardiac tamponade
c. Corpulmonale
d. CCF
24. Propranolol is
included under
a. Beta adrenergic
blockers
b. Antiplatelet agents
c. Calcium channel
blockers
d. ACE inhibitors
25. Dumping syndrome may
occur in -
a. Gastrostomy
b. Gastrectomy
c. Colostomy
d. Pneumonectomy
26. An elevation of—-has
a strong and direct association with CAD -
a. LDL
b. HDL
c. Serum sodium
d. Serum creatinine
27. A client with
dysphagia experience difficulty in -
a. Writing
b. Swallowing
c. Walking
d. Comprehension
28. It is most important
for the nurse to observe a client with tetanus for _
a. Muscular rigidity
b. Respiratory tract
spasm
c. Restlessness and
irritation
d. Spastic voluntary
contraction
29. Infection which occur
as a result of diagnostic procedure or treatment is called -
a. Cross infection
b. Iatrogenic infection
c. Contagious disease
d. Communicable disease
30. Third degree genital
prolapse is otherwise called _
a. Retroversion
b. Inversion
c. Procidentia
d. Fibroid uterus
31. The increased calorie
need during puerperium is _
a. 1000 kcals
b. 500 kcals
c. 300 kcals
d. 800 kcals
32. Increased pulsation
felt in lateral fornices of vagina in pregnancy is termed as
a. Chadwick’s’ sign
b. Oseander’s sign
c. Goodell’s sign
d. Hagar’s sign
33. The disadvantage of
ileal conduct is -
a. Peristalsis greatly
reduced
b. Stool continuously
oozes from it
c. Urine continuously
drains from it
d. Absorption of
nutrients is decreased
34. Lipid profile test
consists of the following except: -
a. LDL
b. HDL
c. Total cholesterol
d. SGOT
35. The antidote for
MgSO4 is -
a. Calcium gluconate
b. KCL
c. NaCl
d. NaHCO3
36. The causative organism for tetanus is: -
a. Clostridium welchie
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Treponema pallidum
37. Angiotensin II is a:
-
a. Vasoconstrictor
b. Vasodilator
c. Bronchodilator
d. Muscle relaxant
38. Tocolytics act on
uterus to produce: -
a. Contraction
b. Relaxation
c. Retraction
d. Constriction
39. Increased prolactin level -
a. Suppress ovulation
b. Induce ovulation
c. Suppress lactation
d. Induce uterine
relaxation
40. A patient with CCF is
getting digoxin therapy and loop diuretic inorder to prevent complication the nurse
needs to -
a. Monitor serum potassium
levels
b. Maintain 1/0 chart
c. Restrict intake of potassium
d. Stop digoxin if heat
rate is above 100
41. The normal value of
RBS is -
a. 60 – 80 mg
b. 100 – 140 mg
c. 90 – 130 mg
d. 80 – 120 mg
42. Acetabulum is the
part of :-
a. Scapula
b. Humerus
c. Radius
d. Femur
43. Polydipsia means
excessive -
a. Thirst
b. Hunger
c. Sweating
d. Peristalsis
44. After adrenalectomy
for pheochromocytoma, the patient is likely to experience
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypokalemia
c. Marked variation in BP
d. Sodium and fluid
retention
45. Following kidney transplantation,
signs of rejection include :-
a. Fever, weight loss,
increased urine output and increased BP
b. Fever, weight gain,
increased urine output and increased BP
c. Fever, weight loss,
increased urine output and reduced BP
d. Fever, weight gain, reduced
urine output and increased BP
46. The quantity of fluid
intake allowed for a patient with renal failure is-
a. Previous day’s urine
output +500ml
b. Previous day’s urine
output + 100ml
c. One liter
d. Equal to the amount of
previous day’s urine output
47. Lack of intrinsic
factor in the stomach results in failure of absorption of vitamin -
a. B1
b. B6
c. B2
d. B12
48. Vitamin K is
essential for normal blood clotting because it promotes -
a. Platelet aggregation
b. Ionization of blood
calcium
c. Fibrinogen formation
by liver
d. Prothrombin formation
by liver
49. The most lethal
arrhythmia among the following is -
a. Ventricular
fibrillations
b. Atrial fibrillations
c. Sinus Tachycardia
d. First degree heart
block
50. The higher the RBC
count -
a. The lesser the hematocrit
b. The greater the
viscosity
c. The higher the blood
PH
d. Immunity will be less
51. Glaucoma is characterized
by the following features except -
a. Increased intraocular
pressure
b. Optic nerve atrophy
c. Inflammation of cornea
D. Peripheral visual
field loss
52. The majority of the
body’s water is contained in which of the following fluid compartments -
a. Interstitial
b. Intracellular
c. Extracellular
d. Intravascular
53. In nephrotic syndrome
edema results from -
a. Reduced aldosterone
secretion
b. Reduced osmotic
pressure caused by the loss of serum proteins
c. Increased sodium
retention
d. Decreased glomerular
filtration
54. The weight of the
placenta at term is about -
a. 750 gm
b. 1500 gm
c. 500 gm
d. 100 gm
55. HELLP syndrome is a
complication of:-
a. Hepatitis
b. Leukemia
c. AIDS
d. Pre-eclampsia
56. False unshakable
belief exhibited by patients with psychosis is ;-
a. Illusion
b. Delusions
c. Hallucination
d. Confabulation
57. Senseless repetition
of same words or phrases over and over again is termed as -
a. Neologism
b. Echolalia
c. Perseveration
d. Verbigeration
58. In obstructive jaundice
there will be -
a. Elevated urinary
urobilinogen
b. Clay colored stools
c. Dark urine and stools
d. Fever and pruritus
59. 7th cranial nerve is
-
a. Glossopharyngeal
b. Abducens
c. Facial
d. Oculomotor
60. Is an auto immune
disease of the neuromuscular junction characterized by fluctuating weakness of
certain skeletal muscles -
a. Myasthenia Gravis
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Scleroderma
d. Dementia
61. ——–is a sexually
transmitted disease -
a. Gonorrhea
b. Molluscum contagiosum
c. Acne vulgaris
d. Hepatitis A
62. ———is the separation
and description of previously joined wound edges.-
a. Contracture
b. Dehiscence
c. Scarring
d. Evisceration
63. First fetal movement
perceived by mother -
a. Lightening
b. Quickening
c. Engagement
d. Internal ballottement
64. In vesicular mole,
which hormone is found in excess:-
a. FSH
b. Progesterone
c. Estrogen
d. HCG
65. A woman with 2 months
of amenorrhea and a positive pregnancy test is complaining of brown vaginal
spotting, it may be suggestive of ;-
a. Missed abortion
b. Placenta previa
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Abruptio placenta
66. ——-must be checked
prior to administration of digoxin -
a. Respiration
b. Heart rate
c. Temperature
d. BP
67. The mental mechanism
in which blaming others for our own mistake is termed as: -
a. Projection
b. Displacement
c. Sublimation
d. Regression
68. Nevirapine is given
in pregnancy -
a. To prevent measles
b. To prevent hepatitis
c. To reduce viral load
in HIV infection
d. To prevent Rubella
69. The most populated
country in the world -
a. India
b. Australia
c. USA
d. China
70. Which of the
following is +not a component of Bishop’s score -
a. Cervical length
b. Cervical dilations
c. Position of head
d. Station of head
71. In a patient affected
with HIV, the organism will be present in all of the following except -
a. Blood
b. Semen
c. Vaginal secretions
d. Sperm
72. `——-is the largest
gland in the body -
a. Thyroid
b. Pituitary
c. Liver
d. Adrenals
73. RNTCP is related with
-
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Tuberculosis
c. Measles
d. Hepatitis
74. A side effect of ECT
-
a. Anorexia
b. Hypotension
c. Confusion for a time
after treatment
d. Loss of memory
75. Rickets results from
deficiency of -
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin B12.
d. Vitamin K
76. Widal test is used to
diagnose -
a. Hepatitis
b. Leptospirosis
c. Typhoid fever
d. Tuberculosis
77. Circle of Willis is
related with circulation of -
a. Heart
b. Kidney
c. Liver
d. Brain
78. ——-must be taken in
empty stomach
a. rifampicin
b. Ampicillin
c. Paracetamol
d. INH
79. All of the following
are classical features of nephrotic syndrome except -
a. Hyperlipidemia
b. Hypoalbuminemia
c. Hypotension
d. Proteinuria
80. Important side effect
of cisplatin is -
a. Bleeding tendencies
b. Hypotension
c. Liver failure
d. Nephrotoxicity
81. After ovulation, the
ovum is viable for -
a. 6–8 hours
b. 8–12 hours
c. 24–36 hours
d. 48–72 hours
82. Loss of power of
expression of speech is -
a. Aphasia
b. Apraxia
c. Aplasia
d. Aphonia
83. After surgical repair
of a cleft lip for an infant, it is important for the nurse -
a. Keeping the baby NPO
b. Keeping the baby from
crying
c. Place in supine
position
d. Give feeds by spoon
84. Chickenpox can be
fatal to children who are receiving -
a. Antibiotics
b. Steroids
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Bronchodilators
85. Congenital absence as
closure of a normal body opening or tubular structure is called-
a. Atony
b. Asthenia
c. Ataxia
d. Atresia
86. The major role in the
maintaining fluid balance in the body is performed by the -
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Lungs
d. Heart
87. Excessive menstrual
bleeding is -
a. Menorrhagia
b. Epimenorrhoea
c. Polymenorrhoea
d. Oligo menorrhea
88. Antinuclear antibody
(ANA) may be positive in -
a. Pneumonia
b. Myocardial Infarction
c. Autoimmune disease
d. Syphilis
89. ——— should not be
given when the baby is in utero -
a. Oxytocin
b. Ergometrine
c. Duvadilan
d. Prostaglandin
90. Terbutaline is -
a. Antispasmodic
b. Vasodilator
c. Analgesic
d. Bronchodilator
91. An increase in number
of cells resulting from increased cellular division is known as -
a. Hyperplasia
b. Hypertrophy
c. Atrophy
d. Dysplasia
92. There are ———- pair
of cranial nerves -
a. 10
b. 8
c. 12
d. 14
93. The arterial blood
gases of a child is deteriorating and respiratory failure is impending, nurse
first assess for -
a. Cyanosis
b. Bradycardia
c. Confusion
d. Distended neck veins
94. Vaginal hysterectomy is usually indicated in -
a. Fibroid uterus
b. Prolapse with uterine
disease
c. Genitourinary fistula
d. Endometriosis
95. When providing care
to patients with thrombocytopenia the nurse must avoid aspirin because it -
a. Interferes with
platelet aggregation
b. Destroy thrombocytes
c. Reduces circulation
d. Produce hemolysis
96. The nurse must assess
a client experiencing excessive production of ADH for -
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Dysuria
d. Dehydration
97. Captopril is -
a. Antipyretics
b. Antihypertensive
c. Diuretics
d. Antipsychotic
98. The hormone that
stimulates the secretion of mammary gland is -
a. Oxytocin
b. HCG
c. Prolactin
d. Estrogen
99. Erythropoietin is
secreted by -
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Pancreas
d. Adrenals
100. ————-is the movement
of solutes from an area of greater concentration to an area of lesser
concentration -
a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Conduction
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