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Download ESIC Nursing Officer Exam 2011 Question Paper PDF

Download ESIC Nursing Officer Exam 2011 Question Paper PDF 

Download ESIC Nursing Officer Exam 2011 Question Paper PDF  . ESIC Conduct Nursing Officer Grade- II Recruitment Exam on 2011 Exam . The Exam was Held on  2011 . Now You Can Download this Question Paper PDF with Answer Keys  from Our Website . Download Link are given below



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➤Download ESIC Nursing Officer Exam 2011 Question Paper PDF- 








1. Uterus will be enlarged and fundus is at the level of umbilicus at——-weeks of gestation.
a. 24 hours
b. 16 weeks
c. 32 weeks
d. 20 weeks




2. Dots is related with -
a. HIV infection
b. Leprosy
c. Weil’s disease
d. Tuberculosis




3. Hepatitis A is transmitted by-
a. Contaminated food and water
b. Blood and blood products
c. Fomites
d. Sexual contact



4. ———–are antipsychotics except -
a. Promethazine
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Prochlorperazine
d. Trifluoperazine




5. 1 gm of protein gives—-kcals.
a. 10
b. 7
c. 5
d. 4



6. ———–is the method of transfer of heat by circulating air or liquid: -
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Evaporation




7. This is not included in the triple test-
a. Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein
b. Unconjugated oestriol
c. HCG
d. Progesterone



8. Massaging the uterus to make it hard is important in -
a. Traumatic PPH
b. Atonic PPH
c. Subinvolution
d. Inversion of uterus



9. All of the following are adventitious breath sounds except:
a. Crackles
b. Rhonchi
c. Wheeze
d. Fremitus



10. The apex beat can be best heard at -
a. 5th intercostal space
b. 3rd intercostal space
c. 7th intercostal space
d. Centre of the sternum





11. The proponent of psychoanalysis theory is -
a. Ivan Pavlov
b. BF Skinner
c. Sigmund Freud
d. Eric Bernec



12. It is an increase in depth of respiration-
a. Apnea
b. Dyspnea
c. Orthopnea
d. Hyperpnoea



13. Mitral valve is situated between -
a. Right atrium and right ventricle
b. Left atrium and left ventricle
c. Aorta and left ventricle
d. Pulmonary artery and right ventricle


14. The normal value of Hb in females is -
a. 8 to 10 gm%
b. 12 – 14 gm%
c. 16 to 18 gm%
d. 10-12 gm%


15. All of the following all components of Glasgow coma scale except -
a. Motor response
b. Marital status
c. Eye opening
d. Verbal response



16. Vincristine is an example of -
a. Antibiotics
b. Nitrogen mustard
c. Plant alkaloid
d. Hormone



17. The suffix used for making an opening
a. Otomy
b. Ostomy
c. Ectomy
d. Raphy



18. Mydriatics are drugs that -
a. Dilate pupil
b. Constrict pupil
c. Reduce intraocular pressure
d. Reduce BP



19. The normal baseline FHR is between. -
a. 100 – 140/ml
b. 80 – 100 /ml
c. 120 – 160/ml
d. 160-180/ml



21. In increased ICP manifestations of Cushing’s triad include all of the following except
a. Increased systolic BP
b. Bradycardia
c. Irregular respiratory pattern
d. Tachycardia


22. After IVP for a patient, the most important nursing responsibility is
a. Assess for flank pain
b. Advice to take increased oral fluids
c. Observe urine for contrast material
d. Keep nil orally for 6 hours.




23. Enlargement of the right ventricle secondary to disease of the lung, thorax or
pulmonary circulation is
a. Cachexia
b. Cardiac tamponade
c. Corpulmonale
d. CCF



24. Propranolol is included under
a. Beta adrenergic blockers
b. Antiplatelet agents
c. Calcium channel blockers
d. ACE inhibitors



25. Dumping syndrome may occur in -
a. Gastrostomy
b. Gastrectomy
c. Colostomy
d. Pneumonectomy




26. An elevation of—-has a strong and direct association with CAD -
a. LDL
b. HDL
c. Serum sodium
d. Serum creatinine




27. A client with dysphagia experience difficulty in -
a. Writing
b. Swallowing
c. Walking
d. Comprehension





28. It is most important for the nurse to observe a client with tetanus for _
a. Muscular rigidity
b. Respiratory tract spasm
c. Restlessness and irritation
d. Spastic voluntary contraction




29. Infection which occur as a result of diagnostic procedure or treatment is called -
a. Cross infection
b. Iatrogenic infection
c. Contagious disease
d. Communicable disease




30. Third degree genital prolapse is otherwise called _
a. Retroversion
b. Inversion
c. Procidentia
d. Fibroid uterus



31. The increased calorie need during puerperium is _
a. 1000 kcals
b. 500 kcals
c. 300 kcals
d. 800 kcals



32. Increased pulsation felt in lateral fornices of vagina in pregnancy is termed as
a. Chadwick’s’ sign
b. Oseander’s sign
c. Goodell’s sign
d. Hagar’s sign




33. The disadvantage of ileal conduct is -
a. Peristalsis greatly reduced
b. Stool continuously oozes from it
c. Urine continuously drains from it
d. Absorption of nutrients is decreased



34. Lipid profile test consists of the following except: -
a. LDL
b. HDL
c. Total cholesterol
d. SGOT




35. The antidote for MgSO4 is -
a. Calcium gluconate
b. KCL
c. NaCl
d. NaHCO3


36. The causative organism for tetanus is: -
a. Clostridium welchie
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Treponema pallidum



37. Angiotensin II is a: -
a. Vasoconstrictor
b. Vasodilator
c. Bronchodilator
d. Muscle relaxant


38. Tocolytics act on uterus to produce: -
a. Contraction
b. Relaxation
c. Retraction
d. Constriction



39. Increased prolactin level -
a. Suppress ovulation
b. Induce ovulation
c. Suppress lactation
d. Induce uterine relaxation



40. A patient with CCF is getting digoxin therapy and loop diuretic inorder to prevent complication the nurse needs to -
a. Monitor serum potassium levels
b. Maintain 1/0 chart
c. Restrict intake of potassium
d. Stop digoxin if heat rate is above 100




41. The normal value of RBS is -
a. 60 – 80 mg
b. 100 – 140 mg
c. 90 – 130 mg
d. 80 – 120 mg




42. Acetabulum is the part of :-
a. Scapula
b. Humerus
c. Radius
d. Femur




43. Polydipsia means excessive -
a. Thirst
b. Hunger
c. Sweating
d. Peristalsis




44. After adrenalectomy for pheochromocytoma, the patient is likely to experience
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypokalemia
c. Marked variation in BP
d. Sodium and fluid retention



45. Following kidney transplantation, signs of rejection include :-
a. Fever, weight loss, increased urine output and increased BP
b. Fever, weight gain, increased urine output and increased BP
c. Fever, weight loss, increased urine output and reduced BP
d. Fever, weight gain, reduced urine output and increased BP



46. The quantity of fluid intake allowed for a patient with renal failure is-
a. Previous day’s urine output +500ml
b. Previous day’s urine output + 100ml
c. One liter
d. Equal to the amount of previous day’s urine output



47. Lack of intrinsic factor in the stomach results in failure of absorption of vitamin -
a. B1
b. B6
c. B2
d. B12



48. Vitamin K is essential for normal blood clotting because it promotes -
a. Platelet aggregation
b. Ionization of blood calcium
c. Fibrinogen formation by liver
d. Prothrombin formation by liver




49. The most lethal arrhythmia among the following is -
a. Ventricular fibrillations
b. Atrial fibrillations
c. Sinus Tachycardia
d. First degree heart block


50. The higher the RBC count -
a. The lesser the hematocrit
b. The greater the viscosity
c. The higher the blood PH
d. Immunity will be less


51. Glaucoma is characterized by the following features except -
a. Increased intraocular pressure
b. Optic nerve atrophy
c. Inflammation of cornea
D. Peripheral visual field loss



52. The majority of the body’s water is contained in which of the following fluid compartments -
a. Interstitial
b. Intracellular
c. Extracellular
d. Intravascular




53. In nephrotic syndrome edema results from -
a. Reduced aldosterone secretion
b. Reduced osmotic pressure caused by the loss of serum proteins
c. Increased sodium retention
d. Decreased glomerular filtration



54. The weight of the placenta at term is about -
a. 750 gm
b. 1500 gm
c. 500 gm
d. 100 gm



55. HELLP syndrome is a complication of:-
a. Hepatitis
b. Leukemia
c. AIDS
d. Pre-eclampsia




56. False unshakable belief exhibited by patients with psychosis is ;-
a. Illusion
b. Delusions
c. Hallucination
d. Confabulation



57. Senseless repetition of same words or phrases over and over again is termed as -
a. Neologism
b. Echolalia
c. Perseveration
d. Verbigeration




58. In obstructive jaundice there will be -
a. Elevated urinary urobilinogen
b. Clay colored stools
c. Dark urine and stools
d. Fever and pruritus




59. 7th cranial nerve is -
a. Glossopharyngeal
b. Abducens
c. Facial
d. Oculomotor




60. Is an auto immune disease of the neuromuscular junction characterized by fluctuating weakness of certain skeletal muscles -
a. Myasthenia Gravis
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Scleroderma
d. Dementia



61. ——–is a sexually transmitted disease -
a. Gonorrhea
b. Molluscum contagiosum
c. Acne vulgaris
d. Hepatitis A



62. ———is the separation and description of previously joined wound edges.-
a. Contracture
b. Dehiscence
c. Scarring
d. Evisceration




63. First fetal movement perceived by mother -
a. Lightening
b. Quickening
c. Engagement
d. Internal ballottement




64. In vesicular mole, which hormone is found in excess:-
a. FSH
b. Progesterone
c. Estrogen
d. HCG




65. A woman with 2 months of amenorrhea and a positive pregnancy test is complaining of brown vaginal spotting, it may be suggestive of ;-
a. Missed abortion
b. Placenta previa
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Abruptio placenta



66. ——-must be checked prior to administration of digoxin -
a. Respiration
b. Heart rate
c. Temperature
d. BP



67. The mental mechanism in which blaming others for our own mistake is termed as: -
a. Projection
b. Displacement
c. Sublimation
d. Regression




68. Nevirapine is given in pregnancy -
a. To prevent measles
b. To prevent hepatitis
c. To reduce viral load in HIV infection
d. To prevent Rubella



69. The most populated country in the world -
a. India
b. Australia
c. USA
d. China




70. Which of the following is +not a component of Bishop’s score -
a. Cervical length
b. Cervical dilations
c. Position of head
d. Station of head



71. In a patient affected with HIV, the organism will be present in all of the following except -
a. Blood
b. Semen
c. Vaginal secretions
d. Sperm



72. `——-is the largest gland in the body -
a. Thyroid
b. Pituitary
c. Liver
d. Adrenals



73. RNTCP is related with -
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Tuberculosis
c. Measles
d. Hepatitis



74. A side effect of ECT -
a. Anorexia
b. Hypotension
c. Confusion for a time after treatment
d. Loss of memory




75. Rickets results from deficiency of -
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin B12.
d. Vitamin K



76. Widal test is used to diagnose -
a. Hepatitis
b. Leptospirosis
c. Typhoid fever
d. Tuberculosis



77. Circle of Willis is related with circulation of -
a. Heart
b. Kidney
c. Liver
d. Brain



78. ——-must be taken in empty stomach
a. rifampicin
b. Ampicillin
c. Paracetamol
d. INH



79. All of the following are classical features of nephrotic syndrome except -
a. Hyperlipidemia
b. Hypoalbuminemia
c. Hypotension
d. Proteinuria




80. Important side effect of cisplatin is -
a. Bleeding tendencies
b. Hypotension
c. Liver failure
d. Nephrotoxicity



81. After ovulation, the ovum is viable for -
a. 6–8 hours
b. 8–12 hours
c. 24–36 hours
d. 48–72 hours



82. Loss of power of expression of speech is -
a. Aphasia
b. Apraxia
c. Aplasia
d. Aphonia




83. After surgical repair of a cleft lip for an infant, it is important for the nurse -
a. Keeping the baby NPO
b. Keeping the baby from crying
c. Place in supine position
d. Give feeds by spoon



84. Chickenpox can be fatal to children who are receiving -
a. Antibiotics
b. Steroids
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Bronchodilators




85. Congenital absence as closure of a normal body opening or tubular structure is called-
a. Atony
b. Asthenia
c. Ataxia
d. Atresia



86. The major role in the maintaining fluid balance in the body is performed by the -
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Lungs
d. Heart




87. Excessive menstrual bleeding is -
a. Menorrhagia
b. Epimenorrhoea
c. Polymenorrhoea
d. Oligo menorrhea




88. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) may be positive in -
a. Pneumonia
b. Myocardial Infarction
c. Autoimmune disease
d. Syphilis




89. ——— should not be given when the baby is in utero -
a. Oxytocin
b. Ergometrine
c. Duvadilan
d. Prostaglandin



90. Terbutaline is -
a. Antispasmodic
b. Vasodilator
c. Analgesic
d. Bronchodilator




91. An increase in number of cells resulting from increased cellular division is known as -
a. Hyperplasia
b. Hypertrophy
c. Atrophy
d. Dysplasia



92. There are ———- pair of cranial nerves -
a. 10
b. 8
c. 12
d. 14



93. The arterial blood gases of a child is deteriorating and respiratory failure is impending, nurse first assess for -
a. Cyanosis
b. Bradycardia
c. Confusion
d. Distended neck veins


94. Vaginal hysterectomy is usually indicated in -
a. Fibroid uterus
b. Prolapse with uterine disease
c. Genitourinary fistula
d. Endometriosis


95. When providing care to patients with thrombocytopenia the nurse must avoid aspirin because it -
a. Interferes with platelet aggregation
b. Destroy thrombocytes
c. Reduces circulation
d. Produce hemolysis



96. The nurse must assess a client experiencing excessive production of ADH for -
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Dysuria
d. Dehydration




97. Captopril is -
a. Antipyretics
b. Antihypertensive
c. Diuretics
d. Antipsychotic




98. The hormone that stimulates the secretion of mammary gland is -
a. Oxytocin
b. HCG
c. Prolactin
d. Estrogen



99. Erythropoietin is secreted by -
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Pancreas
d. Adrenals




100. ————-is the movement of solutes from an area of greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration -
a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Conduction
d. Ultrafiltration






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