Download ESIC Staff Nurse Exam 2011 Question Paper PDF

Download ESIC Staff Nurse Exam 2011 Question Paper PDF

Download ESIC Staff Nurse Exam 2011 Question Paper PDF . ESIC Conduct Nursing Officer Grade- I Recruitment Exam on 2011 Exam . The Exam was Held on 2011 . Now You Can Download this Question Paper PDF with Answer Keys  from Our Website . Download Link are given below-

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➤Download ESIC Staff Nurse Exam 2011 Question Paper PDF-

1. Uterus will be enlarged and fundus is at the level of umbilicus at——-weeks of gestation.

a. 24 hours 

b. 16 weeks

c.32 weeks

d. 20 weeks

2 . Dots is related with -

a. HIV infection

b. Leprosy

c. Weil’s disease

d. Tuberculosis

3. Hepatitis A is transmitted by,-

a. Contaminated food and water

b. Blood and blood products

c. Fomites

d. Sexual contact

4. ———–are antipsychotics except -

a. Promethazine

b. Chlorpromazine

c. Prochlorperazine

d. Trifluoperazine

5. 1 gm of protien gives—-kcals.

a. 10

b. 7

c. 5

d.4

6. ———–is the method of transfer of heat by circulating air or liquid :-

a. Radiation 

b. Conduction

c. Convection

d. Evaporation

7. This is not included in the triple test- 

a. Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein

b. Unconjugated oestriol

c. HCG

d. Progestrone

8. Massaging the uterus to make it hard is important in -

a. Traumatic PPH

b. Atonic PPH

c. Subinvolution

d. Inversion of uterus

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9. All of the following are adventitious breath sounds except:

a. Crackles

b. Rhonchi

c. Wheeze

d. Fremitus

10. The apex beat can be best heard at -

a. 5th intercostal space

b. 3rd intercostal space

c. 7th intercostal space

d. Centre of the sternum

11. The proponent of psychoanalysis theory is -

a. Ivan Pavlov

b. BF Skinner

c. Sigmund Freud

d. Eric Bernec

12. It is an increase in depth of respiration-

a. Apnoea

b. Dyspnea

c. Orthopnea

d. Hyperpnoea

13. Mitral valve is situated between -

a. Right atrium and right ventricle

b. Left atrium and left ventricle

c. Aorta and left ventricle

d. Pulmonary artery and right ventricle

14. The normal value of Hb in females is -

a. 8 to 10 gm%

b. 12 – 14 gm%

c. 16 to 18 gm%

d. 10-12 gm%

15. All of the following all components of Glasgow coma scale except -

a. Motor response

b. Marital status

c. Eye opening

d. Verbal response

16. Vincristine is an example of -

a. Antibiotics

b. Nitrogen mustard

c. Plant alkaloid

d. Hormone

17. The suffix used for making an opening

a. Otomy

b. Ostomy

c. Ectomy

d. Raphy

18. Mydriatics are drugs that -

a. Dilate pupil

b. Constrict pupil

c. Reduce intraocular pressure

d. Reduce BP

19. The normal baseline FHR is between. -

a. 100 – 140/ml

b. 80 – 100 /ml

c. 120 – 160/ml

d. 160-180/ml

20. When a patient is receiving anticoagulants ,this drug is contraindicated as-

a. Frusemide

b. Chlorpromazine

c. Acetylsalicylic acid

d. Phenytoin sodium

21. In increased ICP manifestations of Cushing's triad include all of the following except-

a. Increased systolic BP

b. Bradycardia

c. Irregular respiratory pattern

d. Tachycardia

22. After IVP for a patient, the most important nursing responsibility is-

a. Assess for flank pain

b. Advice to take increased oral fluids

c. Observe urine for contrast material

d. Keep nil orally for 6 hours.

23. Enlargement of the right ventricle secondary to disease of the lung, thorax or

pulmonary circulation is- 

a. Cachexia

b. Cardiac tamponade

c. Corpulmonale

d. CCF

24. Propranolol is included under-

a. Beta adrenergic blockers

b. Antiplatelet agents

c. Calcium channel blockers

d. ACE inhibitors

25. Dumping syndrome may occur in -

a. Gastrostomy

b. Gastrectomy

c. Colostomy

d. Pneumonectomy

26. An elevation of------has a strong and direct association with CAD -

a. LDL

b. HDL

c. Serum sodium

d. serum creatinine

27. A client with dysphagia experience difficulty in -

a. writing

b. swallowing

c. walking

d. Comprehension

28. It is most important for the nurse to observe a client with tetanus for _

a. Muscular rigidity

b. Respiratory tract spasm

c. Restlessness and irritation

d. Spastic voluntary contraction

29. Infection which occur as a result of diagnostic procedure or treatment is called -

a. Cross infection

b. Iatrogenic infection

c. Contagious disease

d. communicable disease

30. Third degree genital prolapse is otherwise called _

a. Retroversion

b. Inversion

c. Procidentia

d. Fibroid uterus

31. The increased calorie need during puerparium is _

a. 1000 kcals

b. 500 kcals

c. 300 kcals

d. 800 kcals

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32. Increased pulsation felt in lateral fornices of vagina in pregnancy is termed as 

a. Chadwick's’ sign

b. Oseander’s sign

c. Goodell’s sign

d. Hegar’s sign

33. The disadvantage of ileal conduct is -

a. Peristalsis greatly reduced

b. Stool continuously oozes from it

c. Urine continuously drains from it

d. absorption of nutrients is decreased

34. Lipid profile test consists of the following except :-

a. LDL

b. HDL

c. Total cholesterol

d. SGOT

35. The antidote for MgSO4 is -

a. Calcium gluconate

b. Kcl

c. Nacl

d. NaHCO3

36. The causative organism for tetanus is :-

a. Clostridium welchie 

b. Clostridium tetani

c. Salmonella typhi

d. Treponema pallidum

37. Angiotensin II is a :-

a. Vasoconstrictor

b. Vasodilator

c. Bronchodilator

d. Muscle relaxant

38. Tocolytics act on uterus to produce :-

a. Contraction

b. Relaxation

c. Retraction 

d. Constriction

39. Increased prolactin level -

a. Suppress ovulation

b. Induce ovulation

c. Suppress lactation 

d. Induce uterine relaxation

40. A patient with CCF is getting digoxin therapy and loop diuretic in order to prevent complication the nurse needs to -

a. Monitor serum potassium levels

b. Maintain 1/0 chart

c. Restrict intake of potassium

d. stop digoxin if heat rate is above 100

41. The normal value of RBS is -

a. 60 – 80 mg

b. 100 – 140 mg

c. 90 – 130 mg

d. 80 – 120 mg

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42. Acetabulum is the part of :-

a. scapula

b. Humerus

c. Radius

d. Femur

43. Polydipsia means excessive -

a. Thirst

b. Hunger

c. sweating

d. peristalsis

44. After adrenalectomy for pheochromocytoma, the patient is likely to experience-

a. Hyperkalemia

b. Hypokalemia

c. Marked variation in BP

d. Sodium and fluid retention

45. Following kidney transplantation, signs of rejection include :-

a. fever, weight loss, increased urine output and increased BP

b. fever, weight gain, increased urine output and increased BP

c. fever, weight loss, increased urine output and reduced BP

d. fever, weight gain, reduced urine output and increased BP

46. The quantity of fluid intake allowed for a patient with renal failure is- 

a. Previous day’s urine output +500ml

b. Previous day’s urine output + 100ml

c. one liter

d. equal to the amount of previous day’s urine output

47. Lack of intrinsic factor in the stomach results in failure of absorption of vitamin -

a. B1

b. B6

c. B2

d. B12

48. Vitamin K is essential for normal blood clotting because it promotes -

a. Platelet aggregation

b. lionization of blood calcium

c. Fibrinogen formation by liver

d. Prothrombin formation by liver

49. The most lethal arrhythmia among the following is -

a. Ventricular fibrillations

b. Atrial fibrillations

c. Sinus Tachycardia

d. First degree heart block

50. The higher the RBC count -

a. the lesser the hematocrit

b. the greater the viscosity

c. the higher the blood PH

d. Immunity will be less

51. Glaucoma is characterized by the following features except -

a. Increased intraocular pressure

b. optic nerve atrophy

c. inflammation of cornea

D. peripheral visual field loss

52. The majority of the body’s water is contained in which of the following fluid compartments -

a. interstitial

b. Intracellular

c. Extracellular

d. intravascular

53. In nephrotic syndrome edema results from -

a. Reduced aldosterone secretion

b. Reduced osmotic pressure caused by the loss of serum proteins

c. Increased sodium retention

d. Decreased glomerular filtration

54. The weight of the placenta at term is about -

a. 750 gm

b. 1500 gm

c. 500 gm

d. 100 gm

55. HELLP syndrome is a complication of :-

a. Hepatitis

b. Leukemia

c. AIDS

d. Pre-eclampsia

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56. False unshakable belief exhibited by patients with psychosis is ;-

a. Illusion

b. Delusions

c. Hallucination

d. Confabulation

57. Senseless repetition of same words or phrases over and over again is termed as -

a. Neologism

b. Echolalia

c. Perseveration

d. verbigeration

58. In obstructive jaundice there will be -

a. Elevated urinary urobilinogen

b. clay coloured stools

c. Dark urine and stools

d. fever and pruritus

59. 7th cranial nerve is -

a. Glossopharyngeal

b. Abducens

c. Facial

d. Oculomotor

60. Is an auto immune disease of the neuromuscular junction characterized by fluctuating weakness of certain skeletal muscles -

a. Myasthenia Gravis

b. Alzheimer’s disease

c. Scleroderma

d. Dementia

61. ——–is a sexually transmitted disease -

a. Gonorrhoea

b. Molluscum contagiosum

c. Acne vulgaris

d. Hepatitis A

62. ———is the separation and description of previously joined wound edges.-

a. Contracture

b. Dehiscence

c. Scarring

d. Evisceration

63. First foetal movement perceived by mother -

a. Lightening

b. Quickening

c. Engagement

d. Internal ballottement

64. In vesicular mole, which hormone is found in excess :-

a. FSH

b. Progesterone

c. Oestrogen

d. HCG

65. A woman with 2 months of amenorrhea and a positive pregnancy test is complaining of brown vaginal spotting, it may be suggestive of ;-

a. Missed abortion

b. Placenta previa

c. Choriocarcinoma

d. Abruptio placenta

66. ——-must be checked prior to administration of digoxin -

a. Respiration

b. Heart rate

c. Temperature

d. BP

67. The mental mechanism in which blaming others for our own mistake is termed as:-
a. Projection
b. Displacement
c. Sublimation
d. Regression

68. Nevirapine is given in pregnancy -

a. to prevent measles

b. to prevent hepatitis

c. to reduce viral load in HIV infection

d. to prevent Rubella

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69. The most populated country in the world -

a. India

b. Australia

c. USA

d. China

70. Which of the following is +not a component of Bishop’s score -

a. Cervical length
b. Cervical dialations
c. Position of head
d. Station of head

71. In a patient affected with HIV, the organism will be present in all of the following except -

a. Blood

b. Semen

c. Vaginal secretions

d. sperm

72. `——-is the largest gland in the body -

a. Thyroid

b. Pituitary

c. Liver

d. Adrenals

73. RNTCP is related with -

a. Poliomyelitis

b. Tuberculosis

c. Measles

d. Hepatitis

74. A side effect of ECT -

a. Anorexia 

b. Hypotension

c. confusion for a time after treatment

d. Loss of memory

75. Rickets results from deficiency of -

a. Vitamin C

b. Vitamin D

c. Vitamin B12

d. Vitamin K

76. Widal test is used to diagnose -

a. Hepatitis

b. Leptospirosis

c. Typhoid fever

d. Tuberculosis

77. Circle of Willis is related with circulation of -

a. Heart

b. Kidney

c. Liver

d. Brain

78. ——-must be taken in empty stomach 

a. Rifampicin

b. Ampicillin

c. Paracetamol

d. INH

79. All of the following are classical features of nephrotic syndrome except -

a. Hyperlipidemia

b. Hypoalbuminemia

c. Hypotension

d. Proteinuria

80. Important side effect of cisplatin is -

a. Bleeding tendencies
b. Hypotension
c. Liver failure
d. Nephrotoxicity

81. After ovulation, the ovum is viable for -

a. 6 – 8 hours

b. 12– 24 hours

c. 24 – 36 hours

d. 48 – 72 hours

82. Loss of power of expression of speech is -

a. Aphasia

b. Apraxia

c. Aplasia

d. Aphonia

83. After surgical repair of a cleft lip for an infant, it is important for the nurse -

a. Keeping the baby NPO
b. Keeping the baby from crying
c. Place in supine position
d. Give feeds by spoon

84. Chickenpox can be fatal to children who are receiving -

a. Antibiotics

b. Steroids'

c. Anticonvulsants

d. Bronchodilators

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85. Congenital absence as closure of a normal body opening or tubular structure is called-

a. Atony

b. Asthenia

c. Ataxia

d. Atresia

86. The major role in the maintaining fluid balance in the body is performed by the -

a. liver

b. kidney

c. Lungs

d. Heart

87. Excessive menstrual bleeding is -

a. Menorrhagia

b. Epimenorrhoea

c. polymenorrhoea

d. Oligo menorrhea

88. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) may be positive in -

a. pneumonia

b. Myocardial Infarction

c. Autoimmune disease

d. Syphilis

89. ——— should not be given when the baby is in utero -

a. Oxytocin

b. Ergometrine

c. Duvadilan

d. Prostaglandin

90. Terbutaline is -

a. Antispasmodic

b. Vasodilator

c. Analgesic

d. Bronchodilator

91. An increase in number of cells resulting from increased cellular division is known as -

a. Hyperplasia

b. Hypertrophy

c. Atrophy

d. Dysplasia

92. There are ———- pair of cranial nerves -

a. 10
b.8
c. 12
d. 14

93. The arterial blood gases of a child is deteriorating and respiratory failure is impending, nurse first assess for -

a. Cyanosis 

b. Bradycardia

c. Confusion

d. Distended neck veins

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94. Vaginal hysterectomy is usually indicated in -

a. Fibroid uterus

b. Prolapse with uterine disease

c. Genitourinary fistula

d. Endometriosis

95. When providing care to patients with thrombocytopenia the nurse must avoid aspirin because it -

a. Interferes with platelet aggregation

b. Destroy thrombocytes

c. Reduces circulation

d. Produce hemolysis

96. The nurse must assess a client experiencing excessive production of ADH for -

a. Hyponatraemia

b. Hypoglycaemia

c. Dysuria

d. Dehydration

97. Captopril is -

a. Antipyretics

b. Antihypertensive

c. Diuretics

d. Antipsychotic

98. The hormone that stimulates the secretion of mamary gland is -

a. Oxytocin

b. HCG

c. Prolactin

d. Oestrogen

99. Erythropoietin is secreted by -

a. liver

b. kidney

c. pancreas

d. Adrenals

100. ————-is the movement of solutes from an area of greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration -

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a. Diffusion

b. Osmosis

c. Conduction 

d. Ultrafiltration

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