Download Staff Nurse Exam Modal Question Paper pdf -9 with Answer
Staff nurse exam Modal Paper is Useful for nursing students who prepare for staff nurse Recruitment exam like AIIMS,JIPMER,PGIMER,GMCH,DSSSB,RRB,RUHS,BHU,AMU,SCTIMST,KPSC,RPSC,HPSSSB,HSSC,and All other Staff nurse exam .you can download this question paper in pdf format link given belowwww.prncfet.com
STAFF NURSE EXAM MODEL QUESTION PAPER PDF 09 WITH ANSWER
Sources - NCLEX-RN Practice Question Answer
PUBLISHED BY – www.prncfet.com
Total No. of Questions – 50
Q. 1 A Patient is admitted to the emergency room with a gunshot wound to the
right arm. After dressing the wound and administering the prescribed antibiotic, the
nurse should:-
A. Ask the client if he has any medication allergies
B. Check the client’s immunization record
C. Apply a splint to immobilize the arm
D. Administer medication for pain
Q. 2 The nurse is caring for a client with suspected endometrial cancer. Which
symptom is associated with endometrial cancer?
A. Frothy vaginal discharge
B. Thick, white vaginal discharge
C. Purulent vaginal discharge
D. Watery vaginal discharge
Q. 3 A client with Parkinson’s disease is scheduled for stereotactic surgery. Which
finding indicates that the surgery had its intended effect?
A The client no longer has intractable tremors.
B. The client has sufficient production of dopamine.
C. The client no longer requires any medication.
D. The client will have increased production of serotonin.
Q. 4 A client with AIDS asks the nurse why he cannot have a pitcher of water left
at his bedside. The nurse should tell the client that:-
A. It would be best for him to drink ice water
B. He should drink several glasses of juice instead
C. It makes it easier to keep a record of his intake
D. He should drink only freshly run water
Q.5 An elderly client is diagnosed with interstitial cystitis. Which finding differentiates
interstitial cystitis from other forms of cystitis?
A. The client is asymptomatic.
B. The urine is free of bacteria.
C. The urine contains blood.
D. Males are affected more often.
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Q.6 The mother of a male child with cystic fibrosis tells the nurse that she hopes
her son’s children won’t have the disease. The nurse is aware that:-
A. There is a 25% chance that his children will have cystic fibrosis.
B. Most of the males with cystic fibrosis are sterile.
C. There is a 50% chance that his children will be carriers.
D. Most males with cystic fibrosis are capable of having children, so genetic
counseling is advised.
Q. 7 A 6-month-old is hospitalized with symptoms of botulism. What aspect of the
infant’s history is associated with Clostridium botulinum infection?
A. The infant sucks on his fingers and toes.
B. The mother sweetens the infant’s cereal with honey.
C. The infant was switched to soy-based formula.
D. The father recently purchased an aquarium.
Q.8 The mother of a 6-year-old with autistic disorder tells the nurse that her son
has been much more difficult to care for since the birth of his sister. The best
explanation for changes in the child’s behavior is:-
A. The child did not want a sibling.
B. The child was not adequately prepared for the baby’s arrival.
C. The child’s daily routine has been upset by the birth of his sister.
D. The child is just trying to get the parent’s attention.
Q.9 The parents of a child with cystic fibrosis ask what determines the prog-nosis
of the disease. The nurse knows that the greatest determinant of the prognosis is:-
A. The degree of pulmonary involvement
B. The ability to maintain an ideal weight
C. The secretion of lipase by the pancreas
D. The regulation of sodium and chloride excretion
Q.10 The nurse is assessing a client hospitalized with duodenal ulcer. Which
finding should be reported to the doctor immediately?
A. BP 82/60, pulse 120
B. Pulse 68, respirations 24
C. BP 110/88, pulse 56
D. Pulse 82, respiration 16
Q.11. While caring for a client in the second stage of labor, the nurse notices a
pattern of early decelerations. The nurse should:
A. Notify the physician immediately
B. Turn the client on her left side
C. Apply oxygen via a tight face mask
D. Document the finding on the flow sheet
Q.12. The nurse is teaching the client with AIDS regarding needed changes in food
preparation. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse’s
teaching?
A. Adding fresh ground pepper to my food will improve the flavor.
B. Meat should be thoroughly cooked to the proper temperature.
C. Eating cheese and yogurt will prevent AIDS-related diarrhea.
D. It is important to eat four to five servings of fresh fruits and vegetables a day.
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Q.13 The sputum of a client remains positive for the tubercle bacillus even though
the client has been taking isoniazid. The nurse recognizes that the client should
have a negative sputum culture within:
A. 2 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 8 weeks
D. 12 weeks
14. Which person is at greatest risk for developing Lyme’s disease?
A. Computer programmer
B. Elementary teacher
C. Veterinarian
D. Landscaper
Q. 15 The mother of a 1-year-old wants to know when she should begin toilettraining
her child. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that sufficient
sphincter control for toilet training is present by:
A. 12–15 months of age
B. 18–24 months of age
C. 26–30 months of age
D. 32–36 months of age
Q.16. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with an ileostomy. The
priority nursing diagnosis is:
A. Fluid volume deficit
B. Alteration in body image
C. Impaired oxygen exchange
D. Alteration in elimination
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Q.17. The physician has prescribed cyanocobalamin for a client follow-ing a
gastric resection. Which lab result indicates that the medication is having its
intended effect?
A. Neutrophil count of 4500
B. Hgb of 14.2g
C. Platelet count of 250,000
D. Eosinophil count of 200
Q.18. A behavior-modification program has been started for an adolescent with
oppositional defiant disorder. Which statement describes the use of behavior
modification?
A. Distractors are used to interrupt repetitive or unpleasant thoughts.
B. Techniques using stressors and exercise are used to increase awareness of body
defenses.
C. A system of tokens and rewards is used as positive reinforcement.
D. Appropriate behavior is learned through observing the action of models.
Q.19. Following eruption of the primary teeth, the mother can promote chewing by
giving the toddler:
A. Pieces of hot dog
B. Carrot sticks
C. Pieces of cereal
D. Raisins
Q.20 The nurse is infusing total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The primary purpose
for closely monitoring the client’s intake and output is:
A. To determine how quickly the client is metabolizing the solution
B. To determine whether the client’s oral intake is sufficient
C. To detect the development of hypovolemia
D. To decrease the risk of fluid overload
Q. 21. An obstetrical client with diabetes has an amniocentesis at 28 weeks
gestation. Which test indicates the degree of fetal lung maturity?
A. Alpha-fetoprotein
B. Estriol level
C. Indirect Coomb’s
D. Lecithin sphingomyelin ratio
Q. 22. Which nursing assessment indicates that involutional changes have occurred
in a client who is 3 days postpartum?
A. The fundus is firm and 3 finger widths below the umbilicus.
B. The client has a moderate amount of lochia serosa.
C. The fundus is firm and even with the umbilicus.
D. The uterus is approximately the size of a small grapefruit.
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Q. 23. When administering total parenteral nutrition, the nurse should assess the
client for signs of rebound hypoglycemia. The nurse knows that rebound
hypoglycemia occurs when:
A. The infusion rate is too rapid.
B. The infusion is discontinued without tapering.
C. The solution is infused through a peripheral line.
D. The infusion is administered without a filter
Q. 24. A client scheduled for disc surgery tells the nurse that she frequently uses
the herbal supplement kava-kava (piper methysticum). The nurse should notify the
doctor because kava-kava:
A. Increases the effects of anesthesia and post-operative analgesia
B. Eliminates the need for antimicrobial therapy following surgery
C. Increases urinary output, so a urinary catheter will be needed post-operatively
D. Depresses the immune system, so infection is more of a problem
Q. 25 The physician has ordered 50mEq of potassium chloride for a client with a
potassium level of 2.5mEq. The nurse should administer the medication:
A. Slow, continuous IV push over 10 minutes
B. Continuous infusion over 30 minutes
C. Controlled infusion over 5 hours
D. Continuous infusion over 24 hours
Q.26. The nurse reviewing the lab results of a client receiving cyclophosphamide
for Hodgkin’s lymphoma finds the following: WBC 4,200, RBC 3,800,000,
platelets 25,000, and serum creatinine 1.0mg. The nurse recognizes that the
greatest risk for the client at this time is:
A. Overwhelming infection
B. Bleeding
C. Anemia
D. Renal failure
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Q. 27. While administering a chemotherapeutic vesicant, the nurse notes that there
is a lack of blood return from the IV catheter. The nurse should:
A. Stop the medication from infusing
B. Flush the IV catheter with normal saline
C. Apply a tourniquet and call the doctor
D. Continue the IV and assess the site for edema
Q. 28. A client with cervical cancer has a radioactive implant. Which statement
indicates that the client understands the nurse’s teaching regarding radioactive
implants?
A. I won’t be able to have visitors while getting radiation therapy.
B. I will have a urinary catheter while the implant is in place.
C. I can be up to the bedside commode while the implant is in place.
D. I won’t have any side effects from this type of therapy.
Q. 29. The nurse is teaching circumcision care to the mother of a newborn. Which statement indicates that the mother needs further teaching?
A. I will apply a petroleum gauze to the area with each diaper change.
B. I will clean the area carefully with each diaper change.
C. I can place a heat lamp to the area to speed up the healing process.
D. I should carefully observe the area for signs of infection.
Q. 30 A client admitted for treatment of bacterial pneumonia has an order for intravenous ampicillin. Which specimen should be obtained prior to administering the medication?
A. Routine urinalysis
B. Complete blood count
C. Serum electrolytes
D. Sputum for culture and sensitivity
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Q. 31 While obtaining information about the client’s current medication use, the
nurse learns that the client takes ginkgo to improve mental alertness. The nurse
should tell the client to:-
A. Report signs of bruising or bleeding to the doctor
B. Avoid sun exposure while using the herbal
C. Purchase only those brands with FDA approval
D. Increase daily intake of vitamin E
Q. 32 A client with Hodgkin’s lymphoma is receiving cisplatin. To help prevent
nephrotoxicity, the nurse should:-
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Make sure the client is well hydrated
C. Record the intake and output every shift
D. Tell the client to report ringing in the ears
Q. 33 The chart of a client hospitalized for a total hip repair reveals that the client
is colonized with MRSA. The nurse understands that the client:-
A. Will not display symptoms of infection
B. Is less likely to have an infection
C. Can be placed in the room with others
D. Cannot colonize others with MRSA
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Q. 34 A client receiving vancomycin has a serum level of 20mcg/mL. The nurse
knows that the therapeutic range for vancomycin is:-
A. 5–10mcg/mL
B. 10–25mcg/mL
C. 25–40mcg/mL
D. 40–60mcg/mL
Q. 35 A client is admitted with symptoms of pseudomembranous colitis. Which
finding is associated with Clostridium difficile?
A. Diarrhea containing blood and mucus
B. Cough, fever, and shortness of breath
C. Anorexia, weight loss, and fever
D. Development of ulcers on the lower extremities
Q. 36. Which vitamin should be administered with INH (isoniazid) in order to
prevent possible nervous system side effects?
A. Thiamine
B. Niacin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Riboflavin
37. A client is admitted with suspected Legionnaires’ disease. Which factor
increases the risk of developing Legionnaires’ disease?
A. Treatment of arthritis with steroids
B. Foreign travel
C. Eating fresh shellfish twice a week
D. Doing volunteer work at the local hospital
Q. 38. A client who uses a respiratory inhaler asks the nurse to explain how he can
know when half his medication is empty so that he can refill his prescription. The
nurse should tell the client to:
A. Shake the inhaler and listen for the contents
B. Drop the inhaler in water to see if it floats
C. Check for a hissing sound as the inhaler is used
D. Press the inhaler and watch for the mist
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Q. 39. The nurse is caring for a client following a right nephrolithotomy. Postoperatively,
the client should be positioned:-
A. On the right side
B. Supine
C. On the left side
D. Prone
40. A client is admitted with sickle cell crises and sequestration. Upon assessing
the client, the nurse would expect to find:
A. Decreased blood pressure
B. Moist mucus membranes
C. Decreased respirations
D. Increased blood pressure
Q. 41 A healthcare worker is referred to the nursing office with a suspected latex
allergy. The first symptom of latex allergy is usually:
A. Oral itching after eating bananas
B. Swelling of the eyes and mouth
C. Difficulty in breathing
D. Swelling and itching of the hands
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Q. 42. A client is admitted with disseminated herpes zoster. According to the
Centers for Disease Control Guidelines for Infection Control:
A. Airborne precautions will be needed.
B. No special precautions will be needed.
C. Contact precautions will be needed.
D. Droplet precautions will be needed.
Q. 43. Silver nitrate dressings are applied to the legs of a client with deep partial
thickness burns. The nurse should:
A. Change the dressings once per shift
B. Moisten the dressing with sterile water
C. Change the dressings only when they become soiled
D. Moisten the dressing with normal saline
Q. 44. The nurse is preparing to administer an injection to a 6-month-old when she
notices a white dot in the infant’s right pupil. The nurse should:
A. Report the finding to the physician immediately
B. Record the finding and give the infant’s injection
C. Recognize that the finding is a variation of normal
D. Check both eyes for the presence of the red reflex
Q. 45. A client is diagnosed with stage II Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The nurse
recognizes that the client has involvement:
A. In a single lymph node or single site
B. In more than one node or single organ on the same side of the diaphragm
C. In lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm
D. In disseminated organs and tissues
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Q. 46 A client has been receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis. The
nurse should tell the client to avoid taking:
A. Aspirin
B. Multivitamins
C. Omega 3 fish oils
D. Acetaminophen
Q. 47. The physician has ordered a low-residue diet for a client with Crohn’s
disease. Which food is not permitted in a low-residue diet?
A. Mashed potatoes
B. Smooth peanut butter
C. Fried fish
D. Rice
Q. 48. A client hospitalized with cirrhosis has developed abdominal ascites. The
nurse should provide the client with snacks that provide additional:
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Protein
D. Fat
Q. 49. A diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is often delayed because of the varied
symptoms experienced by those affected with the disease. Which symptom is most
common in those with multiple sclerosis?
A. Resting tremors
B. Double vision
C. Flaccid paralysis
D. Pill-rolling tremors
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Q. 50. After attending a company picnic, several clients are admitted to the
emergency room with E. coli food poisoning. The most likely source of infection
is:
A. Hamburger
B. Hot dog
C. Potato salad
D. Baked beans
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