Download ESIC Staff Nurse Exam 2004 Question Paper PDF
Download AIIMS Jodhpur Nursing Officer Gr-I Exam 2018 Question Paper Answer PDF . AIIMS Jodhpur Conduct Nursing Officer Grade- I Recruitment Exam on August 24 2018 Exam . The Exam was Held on 24 August 2018 . Now You Can Download this Question Paper PDF with Answer Keys from Our Website . Download Link are given below-
Are Preparing for ESIC STAFF NURSE GRADE II Recruitment Examination. And wants to Read or Download Previous Year ESIC STAFF NURSE GRADE II Recruitment Question papers Pdf for Preparation of Your ESIC STAFF NURSE EXAM. We have upload All ESIC STAFF NURSE GRADE II Recruitment Examination Previous Year Questions Papers Pdf like ESIC DELHI, Ahmadabad, Bhiwari, Jaipur, Jammu, Chandigarh, and Many more for Nursing student who prepare himself for competitive nursing exam like AIIMS PGIMER JIPMER DSSSB RAILWAY ESIC AND MANY MORE COMPETITIVE NURSING EXAM.
You also need to Read Previous Year Questions papers for Cracking any Competition Examination. We Are Also Provide AIIMS, PGIMER, JIPMER, DSSSB, RAILWAY, MILITARY, CRPF, ESIC, HPSSSB, RUHS, BFUHS, BHU, RPSC, LNJP, RML, and More Previous Year staff Nurse Grade II Recruitment Examination Questions Papers Pdf For Nursing student who prepare himself for competitive nursing exam.
You can Download other Many Previous Year Staff Nurse Grade II Recruitment Exam Questions Papers Pdf From our website Now Visit Our website for More Questions Papers please visit here http://prncfet.com or www.nursingofficer.in
>You can Download other Many Previous Year Staff Nurse Grade II Recruitment Exam Questions Papers Pdf From our website Now Visit Our website for More Questions Papers please visit here http://prncfet.com or www.nursingofficer.in
➤Download ESIC Staff Nurse Exam 2004 Question Paper PDF-
1. Which of the following is a common symptom of active tuberculosis?
le="background-color: white;">c. Jaundice A. Marked weight loss
B. Dyspnea on exertion
C. Mental status changes
D. Constipation
2. The most common symptoms of hypoglycemia are:
A. Nervousness and diaphoresis
B. Anorexia and incoherent speech
C. Kussmaul’s respiration and confusion
D. Bradycardia and blurred vision
A. Nervousness and diaphoresis
B. Anorexia and incoherent speech
C. Kussmaul’s respiration and confusion
D. Bradycardia and blurred vision
3. Which vitamin is called as “Beauty vitamin
a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin E
a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin E
4. Progesterone is secreted by:
a. Corpus Luteum
b. Corpus albicans
c. Pituitary gland
d. Graafian cells
a. Corpus Luteum
b. Corpus albicans
c. Pituitary gland
d. Graafian cells
5. Cessation of menstrual cycle is called:
a. Ovulation
b. Puberty
c. Menopause
d. Implantation
a. Ovulation
b. Puberty
c. Menopause
d. Implantation
6. Hormones are produced by:
a. Exocrine glands
b. Endocrine glands
c. Holocrine glands
d. Apocrine glands
a. Exocrine glands
b. Endocrine glands
c. Holocrine glands
d. Apocrine glands
7. Islets of Langerhans are present in :
a. Brain
b. Stomach
c. Ovary
d. Pancreas
a. Brain
b. Stomach
c. Ovary
d. Pancreas
8. The male sex hormone is called:
a. Vasopressin
b. Gonadotropic hormone
c. FSH
d. Testosterone
a. Vasopressin
b. Gonadotropic hormone
c. FSH
d. Testosterone
9. Number of spinal nerves in man are:
a. 11 pairs
b. 12 pairs
c. 31 pairs
d. 33 pairs
a. 11 pairs
b. 12 pairs
c. 31 pairs
d. 33 pairs
10. The function of choroid plexus is :
a. To produce lymph
b. To produced blood
c. To produce cerebrospinal fluid
d. To produce endolymph
a. To produce lymph
b. To produced blood
c. To produce cerebrospinal fluid
d. To produce endolymph
11. The cerebellum is concerned with:
a. Co-ordination of muscular movements
b. Perception
c. Memory
d. Vision
a. Co-ordination of muscular movements
b. Perception
c. Memory
d. Vision
12. The commonest cause of C.V.A is:
a. Cerebral hemorrhage
b. Cerebral thrombosis
c. Cerebral embolism
d. Cerebral Spasm
a. Cerebral hemorrhage
b. Cerebral thrombosis
c. Cerebral embolism
d. Cerebral Spasm
13. The PH of fresh urine is about:
a. 7.1
b. 5.0
c. 8.4
d. 9.9
a. 7.1
b. 5.0
c. 8.4
d. 9.9
14. Rh factor can produce:
a. AIDS
b. Erythroblastosis fetalis
c. Turners syndrome
d. Sickle cell anemia
a. AIDS
b. Erythroblastosis fetalis
c. Turners syndrome
d. Sickle cell anemia
15. Pulse pressure is :
a. Diastolic pressure
b. Systolic Pressure
c. Differences between systolic and diastolic pressure
d. Pressure in pulmonary terms.
a. Diastolic pressure
b. Systolic Pressure
c. Differences between systolic and diastolic pressure
d. Pressure in pulmonary terms.
16. Edema is due to :
a. Increased permeability of capillary walls
b. Reduced return of lymph
c. Increased capillary pressure
d. All of the above.
a. Increased permeability of capillary walls
b. Reduced return of lymph
c. Increased capillary pressure
d. All of the above.
17. Removal of gall bladder in man could lead to:
a. Impairment of fat digestion
b. Impairment of digestion of protein
a. Impairment of fat digestion
b. Impairment of digestion of protein
d. Increased acidity in intestine.
18. Loss of appetite, gastrointestinal disorders and muscular weakness are deficiency symptoms of:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
19. Largest gland in human body is
a. Liver
b. Thyroid
c. Pituitary
d. Pancreas
a. Liver
b. Thyroid
c. Pituitary
d. Pancreas
20. The blood vessel in which the oxygen content is highest in the fetus is:
a. Aorta
b. Umbilical Vein
c. Pulmonary artery
d. Inferior Vena cava.
a. Aorta
b. Umbilical Vein
c. Pulmonary artery
d. Inferior Vena cava.
21. India’s National Health Policy was approved in the parliament in:
a. 1961
b. 1980
c. 1983
d. 1991
a. 1961
b. 1980
c. 1983
d. 1991
22. The measure of health status of children in a community is:
a. Infant mortality rate
b. Maternal mortality rate
c. Crude birth rate
d. Crude death rate
a. Infant mortality rate
b. Maternal mortality rate
c. Crude birth rate
d. Crude death rate
23. Which of the following food constituents are more required by pregnant woman?
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Vitamin C
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Vitamin C
24. An ante-natal mother is ordered to have a diet that contains 90 grams of protein each day. How many calories will the protein contribute to her daily weight?
a. 180 calories
b. 360 calories
c. 540 Calories
d. 810 calories
a. 180 calories
b. 360 calories
c. 540 Calories
d. 810 calories
25. The antidote of magnesium sulphate is
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Diazepam
c. Calcium Chloride
d. Nalorphine hydrochloride
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Diazepam
c. Calcium Chloride
d. Nalorphine hydrochloride
26. The approximate volume of blood at birth is:
a. 60 ml/ kg. body weight
b. 85 ml/ kg. body weight
c. 110 ml/ kg. body weight
d. 125 ml/ kg. body weight
a. 60 ml/ kg. body weight
b. 85 ml/ kg. body weight
c. 110 ml/ kg. body weight
d. 125 ml/ kg. body weight
27. Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate salicylate toxicity
a. Chest pain
b. Pink coloured urine
c. Slow pulse rate
d. Ringing in ears
a. Chest pain
b. Pink coloured urine
c. Slow pulse rate
d. Ringing in ears
28. Urinary bladder is line with:
a. Simple epithelium
b. Stratified epithelium
c. Transitional Epithelium
d. Pseudo stratified epithelium
a. Simple epithelium
b. Stratified epithelium
c. Transitional Epithelium
d. Pseudo stratified epithelium
29. Sprain is due to pulling of:
a. Muscles
b. Tendons
c. Ligaments
d. Nerves
a. Muscles
b. Tendons
c. Ligaments
d. Nerves
30. Rickets is due to deficiency of:
a. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin B
d. Vitamin C
a. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin B
d. Vitamin C
31. Which of the following is a mechanical method of contraception?
a. Vasectomy
b. Mala-D
c. Condom
d. M.T.P
a. Vasectomy
b. Mala-D
c. Condom
d. M.T.P
32. Kartar Singh Committee is other wise known as:
a. Multipurpose workers committee
b. Health Survey and development Committee
c. health Survey and planning committee
d. Committee on medical education.
a. Multipurpose workers committee
b. Health Survey and development Committee
c. health Survey and planning committee
d. Committee on medical education.
33. Which of the following drugs has not been used in the treatment of leprosy?
a. Streptomycin
b. Rifampicin
c. Clofaximin
d. I.N.H.
a. Streptomycin
b. Rifampicin
c. Clofaximin
d. I.N.H.
34. Which of the following is a potassium sparing diuretic?
a. Frusemide
b. Aldactone
c. mannitol
d. Diamox
a. Frusemide
b. Aldactone
c. mannitol
d. Diamox
35. The position most suited for an unconscious patient is:
a. Fowlers position
b. Prone position
c. Supine position
d. Semi-prone position.
a. Fowlers position
b. Prone position
c. Supine position
d. Semi-prone position.
36. Temperature of water for preparing hot water bag is :
a. 60-650 C
b. 65-700 C
c. 70-750 C
d. 90-1000 C
a. 60-650 C
b. 65-700 C
c. 70-750 C
d. 90-1000 C
37. 39.0 C is equal to
a. 100.20 F
b. 102.20 F
c. 101.20 F
d. 103.20 F
a. 100.20 F
b. 102.20 F
c. 101.20 F
d. 103.20 F
38. Sand bags are used to prevent.
a. Foot drop
b. Wrist drop
c. Internal rotation of thigh
d. All of the above.
a. Foot drop
b. Wrist drop
c. Internal rotation of thigh
d. All of the above.
39. Hemoptysis is :
a. Blood in urine
b. Blood in vomitus
c. Blood in sputum
d. Blood in feces
a. Blood in urine
b. Blood in vomitus
c. Blood in sputum
d. Blood in feces
40. For continuous oxygen administration for a longer period, the nasal cathete should be changed-
a. Every 6 hours
b. Every 12 hours
c. Every 24 hours
d. Every 48 hours
a. Every 6 hours
b. Every 12 hours
c. Every 24 hours
d. Every 48 hours
41. The causative organism of dengue fever is
a. Entero virus
b. Arbovirus
c. Variola virus
d. Influenza virus
a. Entero virus
b. Arbovirus
c. Variola virus
d. Influenza virus
42. The desired quantity of free residual chlorine in drinking water is:
a. 1 mg./lit,
b. 0.5 mg./lit
c. 2 mg./lit
d. 0.25 mg./lit.
a. 1 mg./lit,
b. 0.5 mg./lit
c. 2 mg./lit
d. 0.25 mg./lit.
43. The vitamin which is involved in fat, protein and carbohydrate metabolism.
a. Riboflavin
b. folic acid
c. niacin
d. thiamine
a. Riboflavin
b. folic acid
c. niacin
d. thiamine
44. The hormonal contraceptives are:
a. Oral
b. injectable
c. Implant
d. All of the above
a. Oral
b. injectable
c. Implant
d. All of the above
45. Poliomyelitis is transmitted through:
a. Water
b. Air
c. Blood
d. Vectors
a. Water
b. Air
c. Blood
d. Vectors
46. MCH service includes:
a. Pre-natal and post-natal care
b. Under fives care
c. Family planning service
d. All of the above
a. Pre-natal and post-natal care
b. Under fives care
c. Family planning service
d. All of the above
47. The recommended maximum noise level for human beings:
a. 86dB
b. 50dB
c. 110 dB
d. 160dB
a. 86dB
b. 50dB
c. 110 dB
d. 160dB
48. The best method of refuse disposal in a hospital is:
a. Dumping
b. Controlled tipping
c. Incineration
d. Composting
a. Dumping
b. Controlled tipping
c. Incineration
d. Composting
49. MTP Act was passed in the year:
a. 1983
b. 1977
c. 2000
d. 1972
a. 1983
b. 1977
c. 2000
d. 1972
50. The maximum amount of blood loss during delivery that is considered to be within normal limit is approximately:
a. 100 ml
b. 300ml
c. 500ml
d. 700 ml.
a. 100 ml
b. 300ml
c. 500ml
d. 700 ml.
51. The most frequent cause of maternal death during child birth is:
a. Sepsis
b. Toxemia
c. Asphyxia
d. Hemorrhage
a. Sepsis
b. Toxemia
c. Asphyxia
d. Hemorrhage
52. Mrs. Mary’s L.M.P. (Last menstrual period ) was on July 13th 2003. Her expected date of delivery is:
a. March 6th 2004
b. March 20th 2004
c. April 6th 2004
d. April 20th 2004.
a. March 6th 2004
b. March 20th 2004
c. April 6th 2004
d. April 20th 2004.
53. The unit of measure commonly used to describe effacement of cervix is:
a. Decimal
b. Percentage
c. Centimeter
d. Finger breadth
a. Decimal
b. Percentage
c. Centimeter
d. Finger breadth
54. Mrs. Leela has placenta previa. The most likely symptom she will present is:
a. Painless bleeding
b. a broad like abdomen
c. Intermittent pain with spotting
d. A dull pain in the lower abdomen.
a. Painless bleeding
b. a broad like abdomen
c. Intermittent pain with spotting
d. A dull pain in the lower abdomen.
55. Which of the following combination of blood types is most likely to produce hemolytic disease of the new born?
a. –ve mother and +ve father
b. +ve mother and –ve father
c. –ve mother and –ve father
d. +ve mother and –ve father.
a. –ve mother and +ve father
b. +ve mother and –ve father
c. –ve mother and –ve father
d. +ve mother and –ve father.
56. The vein which will most likely be used to give exchange transfusion in the
a. Jugular vein
b. Femoral vein
c. Temporal vein
d. Umbilical vein
a. Jugular vein
b. Femoral vein
c. Temporal vein
d. Umbilical vein
57. Which of the following is not an occupational disease?
a. Asbestosis
b. Pneumoconiosis
c. Japanese encephalitis
d. Silicosis
a. Asbestosis
b. Pneumoconiosis
c. Japanese encephalitis
d. Silicosis
58. Carbohydrate is stored in the liver as:
a. Glucose
b. Sucrose
c. Glycogen
d. Galactose
a. Glucose
b. Sucrose
c. Glycogen
d. Galactose
59. The normal serum potassium level is :
a. 2.5 to 4.5m. Eq./L
b. 3.0 to 5.0m. Eq./L
c. 3.5 to 5.5m Eq./L
d. 4.0 to 5.5m. Eq./L
a. 2.5 to 4.5m. Eq./L
b. 3.0 to 5.0m. Eq./L
c. 3.5 to 5.5m Eq./L
d. 4.0 to 5.5m. Eq./L
60. Which of the following symptoms might indicate that a client is developing tetany following subtotal thyroidectomy-
a. Backache
b. Hoarseness
c. Dyspnea
d. Tingling in the fingers
a. Backache
b. Hoarseness
c. Dyspnea
d. Tingling in the fingers
61. The master gland of the body is”
a. Liver
b. Pituitary
c. Thyroid
d. Adrenal
a. Liver
b. Pituitary
c. Thyroid
d. Adrenal
62. Causative organism of Malaria is:
a. Cryptococcosis
b. Leishmania
c. Plasmodium
d. Klebsiella
a. Cryptococcosis
b. Leishmania
c. Plasmodium
d. Klebsiella
63. Sepsis means:
a. Absence of infection
b. Presence of pathogenic organisms
c. Destruction of pathogenic organisms
d. Infection in the blood
a. Absence of infection
b. Presence of pathogenic organisms
c. Destruction of pathogenic organisms
d. Infection in the blood
64. Father of Antiseptic Surgery
a. Joseph Lister
b. Louis Pasteur
c. William Harvey
d. Ronald Ross
a. Joseph Lister
b. Louis Pasteur
c. William Harvey
d. Ronald Ross
65. Vaccines and toxoids produce
a. Natural immunity
b. Active immunity
c. Passive immunity
d. Acquired immunity
a. Natural immunity
b. Active immunity
c. Passive immunity
d. Acquired immunity
66. One gram of fat yields:
a. 9 calories
b. 6 calories
c. 8 calories
d. 4 calories
a. 9 calories
b. 6 calories
c. 8 calories
d. 4 calories
67. Antisterility vitamin is:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
68. Where is the vomiting center located?
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum
c. Medulla Oblongata
d. Diencephalon
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum
c. Medulla Oblongata
d. Diencephalon
69. The most common complication that an occur after renal biopsy is:
a. Infection
b. Tenderness
c. Renal failure
d. Hemorrhage
a. Infection
b. Tenderness
c. Renal failure
d. Hemorrhage
70. Which of the following is a side effect of Morphine?
a. Increased blood pressure
b. Decreased respiratory rate
c. Reduced mucus secretion
d. Visual disturbance.
a. Increased blood pressure
b. Decreased respiratory rate
c. Reduced mucus secretion
d. Visual disturbance.
71. Koplik’s spot is seen in:
a. Chicken box
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Variola
a. Chicken box
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Variola
72. Which of the following vitamin deficiency results in scurvy ?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin D
d. vitamin A
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin D
d. vitamin A
73. An example of congenital cyanotic heart disease is
a. Rheumatic heart disease
b. Ventricular septal defect
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Tetralogy of Fallot
a. Rheumatic heart disease
b. Ventricular septal defect
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Tetralogy of Fallot
74. Approximate time for introduction of solid food in the diet of a child is
a. 1-3 months
b. 5-6 months
c. 6-8 months
d. 10-12 months.
a. 1-3 months
b. 5-6 months
c. 6-8 months
d. 10-12 months.
75. Expected time of closure of anterior fontanel is
a. 4-6 weeks
b. 6-8 months
c. 9-2 months
d. 16-18 months
a. 4-6 weeks
b. 6-8 months
c. 9-2 months
d. 16-18 months
76. Wilm’s tumor is a condition affecting
a. Kidney
b. Bone
c. Blood
d. Brain stem
a. Kidney
b. Bone
c. Blood
d. Brain stem
77. Which of the following is the reason for chest pain associated with myocardial infarction?
a. Decreased oxygen in heart muscle
b. Left ventricular overload
c. Circulatory collapse
d. Electrolyte imbalance
a. Decreased oxygen in heart muscle
b. Left ventricular overload
c. Circulatory collapse
d. Electrolyte imbalance
78. Which of the following would be a priority assessment for a client receiving blood transfusion?
a. Urine output
b. Skin turgor
c. Anaphylactic reaction
d. Level of consciousness
a. Urine output
b. Skin turgor
c. Anaphylactic reaction
d. Level of consciousness
79. Which of the following symptoms must be reported to the doctor by a patient receiving warfarin?
a. Hematuria
b. Constipation
c. Dyspnea
d. Pruritus
a. Hematuria
b. Constipation
c. Dyspnea
d. Pruritus
80. In a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis, which of the following signs indicate peritonitis?
a. Swelling in the legs
b. Redness at the catheter insertion site
c. Poor drainage of the dialysate fluid
d. Cloudy dialysate fluid
a. Swelling in the legs
b. Redness at the catheter insertion site
c. Poor drainage of the dialysate fluid
d. Cloudy dialysate fluid
81. Non-invasive method of oxygen saturation monitoring can be done by
a. Arterial blood gas studies
b. Capillary blood gas studies
c. Venoclysis
d. Pulse Oximetry
a. Arterial blood gas studies
b. Capillary blood gas studies
c. Venoclysis
d. Pulse Oximetry
82. Drug of choice for respiratory depression in a new born whose mother received morphine during labour-
a. Naloxone
b. Digoxin
c. Lidocaine
d. Adrenalin
a. Naloxone
b. Digoxin
c. Lidocaine
d. Adrenalin
83. Immunization against DPT should be administered via
a. Oral route
b. Intramuscular route
c. Subcutaneous route
d. Intra dermal route
a. Oral route
b. Intramuscular route
c. Subcutaneous route
d. Intra dermal route
84. Which of the following is a typical sign of tracheoesophageal fistula?
a. Continuous drooling
b. Diaphragmatic breathing
c. Slow response to stimuli
d. Passage of frothy meconium
a. Continuous drooling
b. Diaphragmatic breathing
c. Slow response to stimuli
d. Passage of frothy meconium
85. Best method of oxygen administration in a two month old baby is via
a. Oxyhood
b. Oxygen mask
c. Nasal canula
d. Nasal prongs
a. Oxyhood
b. Oxygen mask
c. Nasal canula
d. Nasal prongs
86. Absence of ganglion cells in colon is a feature of
a. Ulcerative colitis
b. Hirschsprung’s disease
c. Anorectal malformation
d. Reye’s Syndrome
a. Ulcerative colitis
b. Hirschsprung’s disease
c. Anorectal malformation
d. Reye’s Syndrome
87. A four year old child is having a weight of 7.8 kg. To which grade of protein
energy malnutrition does this child belong
a. Grade I
b. Grade II
c. Grade III
d. Grade IV
energy malnutrition does this child belong
a. Grade I
b. Grade II
c. Grade III
d. Grade IV
88. Gastric lavage is contraindicated after ingestion of which of the following
a. Aspirin
b. Paracetamol
c. Corrosive alkali
d. Odolum
a. Aspirin
b. Paracetamol
c. Corrosive alkali
d. Odolum
89. In an under water seal drainage system cessation of fluid fluctuation in the drainage tubes generally means that
a. Lung has fully expanded
b. Lung has collapsed
c. Mediastinal space has decreased
d. Chest tubes is in the pleural space
a. Lung has fully expanded
b. Lung has collapsed
c. Mediastinal space has decreased
d. Chest tubes is in the pleural space
90. Which of the following is a complication associated with the presence of tracheostomy tube ?
a. Pneumothorax
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Tracheomalacia
d. Damage to laryngeal nerve
a. Pneumothorax
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Tracheomalacia
d. Damage to laryngeal nerve
91. What is the compression ventilation ratio for two rescuer CPR in adult ?
a. 4:2
b. 5:1
c. 5:2
d. 15:2
a. 4:2
b. 5:1
c. 5:2
d. 15:2
92. Which of the following be the best indication that fluid replacement for the client in hypovolemic shock is adequate.
a. Skin feels warm
b. Systolic B.P above 100 mmHg
c. Diastolic B.P above 90 mmHg
d. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr.
a. Skin feels warm
b. Systolic B.P above 100 mmHg
c. Diastolic B.P above 90 mmHg
d. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr.
93. Which of the following is the best technique to determine whether a nasogastric tube is positioned in the stomach?
a. Irrigating with normal saline
b. Aspirating with syringe for gastric contents
c. Placing free end of tube in water
d. Instilling air and auscultating over epigastric area
a. Irrigating with normal saline
b. Aspirating with syringe for gastric contents
c. Placing free end of tube in water
d. Instilling air and auscultating over epigastric area
94. Patients with upper abdominal surgery are advised to use an incentive spirometer during the post-operative period in order to
a. Stimulate circulation
b. Prepare for ambulation
c. Strengthen abdominal muscles
d. Increase respiratory effectiveness
a. Stimulate circulation
b. Prepare for ambulation
c. Strengthen abdominal muscles
d. Increase respiratory effectiveness
95. Which of the following test result is useful to assess the liver function?
a. Glucose tolerance test
b. Creatine clearance test
c. Serum transaminase
d. Serum electrolytes
a. Glucose tolerance test
b. Creatine clearance test
c. Serum transaminase
d. Serum electrolytes
96. World No Tobacco Day is observed on
a. 5th June
b. 31st May
c. 10th August
d. April 7th
a. 5th June
b. 31st May
c. 10th August
d. April 7th
97. Which of the following manifestations indicate that client with cirrhosis is developing hepatic encephalopathy?
a. Change in vital sings
b. Altered level of consciousness
c. Change in respiratory status
d. Decreased urine output
a. Change in vital sings
b. Altered level of consciousness
c. Change in respiratory status
d. Decreased urine output
98. A normal local tissue response to radiation is
a. Atrophy of the skin
b. Scattered pustule formation
c. Redness of surface tissue
d. Sloughing of two layers of skin
a. Atrophy of the skin
b. Scattered pustule formation
c. Redness of surface tissue
d. Sloughing of two layers of skin
99. Automatic rhythmic contractility is the characteristic of
a. Cardiac tissue
b. Nervous tissue
c. Connective tissue
d. Epithelial tissue
a. Cardiac tissue
b. Nervous tissue
c. Connective tissue
d. Epithelial tissue
100. World Heart Day is observed on
a. 21 September
b. 28 September
c. 10 October
d. 14 August
a. 21 September
b. 28 September
c. 10 October
d. 14 August
➧If You Want To Download This Question Paper Pdf . You Can Download This Paper Pdf .Download Link are Given Below click Below Given Link to Download Now -
➤More From Our Website - ⇓
Like Our Facebook Page to Get Notification for Latest Staff Nurse Question Paper Pdf, Latest Staff Nurse Vacancy, Results, Model Paper Pdf, and Staff Nurse Syllabus -
➧Like Facebook Page Now -
You Can Also Subscribe Our YouTube Channel Below-
➧Subscribe On YouTube Now
Like Our Facebook Page to Get Notification for Latest Staff Nurse Question Paper Pdf, Latest Staff Nurse Vacancy, Results, Model Paper Pdf, and Staff Nurse Syllabus -
➧Like Facebook Page Now -
You Can Also Subscribe Our YouTube Channel Below-
➧Subscribe On YouTube Now